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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 13:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

What would happen if the Soviet Union had simply annexed Manchuria after World War 2 or kept it independent as a puppet state allied them and separate from China as China was too weak too oppose it anyway?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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You'll usually find your answer there.